A line in the sand? V

1Corinthians5:12,13NKJV"For what have I to do with judging those also who are outside?Do you not judge those who are inside?But God Judges those who are outside.."

The quest for immortalityII

What's in a name? II

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"Proceeding on this same basis (which evidence now shows to have been actual fact) he adds: `Supposing a Christian scholar were engaged in translating the Greek Testament into Hebrew, he would have to consider, each time the word Kurios occurred, whether there was anything in the context to indicate its true Hebrew representative; and this is the difficulty which would arise in translating the N.T. into all languages if the title [personal name] Jehovah had been allowed to stand in the [Septuagint translation of the] O. T. The Hebrew Scriptures would be a guide in many passages: thus, whenever the expression "the angel of the Lord" occurs, we know that the word "Lord" represents Jehovah; a similar conclusion as to the expression "the word of the Lord" would be arrived at, if the precedent set by the O. T. were followed; so also in the case of the title "the Lord of Hosts." Wherever, on the contrary, the expression "My Lord" or "Our Lord" occurs, we should know that the word Jehovah would be inadmissible, and Adonai or Adoni would have to be used.' (Synonyms of the Old Testament, 1897, p. 43.) It is on such a basis that translations of the Greek Scriptures (mentioned earlier) containing the name of Jehovah have proceeded." - p. 10, Vol. 2, Insight .

So recent discoveries have tended to verify (not disprove) the earlier conclusion of scholars who believed both "Testaments" are equally inspired and, therefore, must both use the personal name of God.

"Recent discoveries in Egypt and the Judean Desert allow us to see first hand the use of God's name in pre-Christian times. These discoveries are significant for NT [New Testament] studies in that they form a literary analogy with the earliest Christian documents and may explain how NT authors used the divine name. In the following pages we will set forth a theory that the divine name, [YHWH] (and possibly abbreviations of it [Yah, IAO]), was originally written in the NT quotations of and allusions to the OT [Old Testament] and that in the course of time it was replaced mainly with [kurios, `Lord']. This removal of the Tetragram[maton], in our view, created a confusion in the minds of early Gentile Christians about the relationship between the `Lord God' and the `Lord Christ' which is reflected in the MS tradition of the NT text itself." - George Howard, University of Georgia, writing in the Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 96, 1977, p. 63.

Another piece of evidence concerning the use of the Divine Name by the inspired Christian writers may be found in the ancient Jewish writings of the Talmud:

Some have criticized [the restoration of the divine name to the NT in the New World Translation] as unwarranted. However, there seems to be support for the New World Translation in an unlikely source: the Babylonian Talmud.

The first part of this Jewish religious work is entitled Shabbath (Sabbath) and contains an immense body of rules governing conduct on the Sabbath. In one section, there is a discussion as to whether it is proper to save Bible manuscripts from a fire on the Sabbath, and then the following passage appears: `It was stated in the text: The blank spaces [gilyohnim] and the Books of the Minim, we may not save them from a fire. R. Jose said: On weekdays one must cut out the Divine Names which they contain, hide them, and burn the rest. R. Tarfon said: May I bury my son if I would not burn them together with their Divine Names if they came to my hand.' - translated by Dr. H. Freedman.

Who were the minim? The word means `sectarians' and could refer to the Sadducees or the Samaritans. But according to Dr. Freedman, in this passage it most likely refers to Jewish Christians. So, what were the gilyohnim, translated `blank spaces' according to Dr. Freedman? There are two possible meanings. They could be the blank margins of a scroll or even blank scrolls. Or - in an ironic application of the word - they could be the writings of the minim, as if to say that these writings are as worthless as blank scrolls. In dictionaries this second meaning is given as `Gospels.'<sup>[[6]]</sup> In harmony with this, the sentence that appears in the Talmud before the above-quoted portion reads: `The books of Minim are like blank spaces [gilyohnim].'

Accordingly, in the book Who Was a Jew? by Lawrence H. Schiffman, the above-quoted portion of the Talmud is translated as follows: `We do not save from a fire (on the Sabbath) the Gospels and the books of the minim ("heretics"). Rather, they are burned in their place, they and their Tetragrammata. Rabbi Yose Ha-Gelili says: During the week, one should cut out their Tetragrammata and hide them away and burn the remainder. Said Rabbi Tarfon: May I bury my sons! If (these books) would come into my hand, I would burn them along with their Tetragrammata.' Dr. Schiffman goes on to argue [like Dr. Freedman above] that the minim here are Jewish Christians.

Is this portion of the Talmud really speaking about the early Jewish Christians? If so, then it is strong evidence that the Christians did include God's name, the Tetragrammaton, in their Gospels and writings. And it is extremely likely that the Talmud is discussing Jewish Christians here. There is scholastic support for such a view, and in the Talmud the context appears to add further support. The section following the above quote from Shabbath relates a story involving Gamaliel and a Christian judge in which parts of the Sermon on the Mount are alluded to. - pp. 30-31, The Watchtower, November 1, 1993.

Why would "Christian" copyists later remove the Hebrew name of God from their Greek manuscripts of the OT and NT?

The very first Christians (including those who wrote most, if not all, of the NT) used the Hebrew Scriptures. (Even for those few who might have used the Septuagint, the Name of God was still found in Hebrew letters in its manuscripts of that time in Judea.)

"In this period [first century AD] churches were still regarded as synagogues, whose members .... professed monotheism in the same terms as did the Jews. They used the Hebrew Scriptures, and took Messianism, the eschatology (even angelology), and the ethics of Judaism for granted" - pp. 121-122, The Rise of Christianity, W. H. C. Frend, Fortress Press, 1985.

However, at some point (probably around the time of the Jewish Revolt of 135 A.D.) the Gentile Christians took over. The Scriptures came to be Greek rather than Hebrew, and an actual anti-Jewish sentiment began to predominate. The Septuagint was now being used exclusively, but the anti-Jewish Gentile "Christian" copyists actually removed God's name whenever they saw the "despicable" Hebrew letters of the Divine Name (the Tetragrammaton [YHWH, Jehovah] and its shortened form [YH, Jah]) that were still being used in the original Jewish manuscripts of the Septuagint. They usually replaced the name with "Lord" or "God" in the copies they made.

... the church was by this time [around the middle of the 2^nd century AD] a predominantly Gentile body. According to Christian writers in the second and third centuries, relations between Christians and Jews apparently became increasingly hostile. [p. 103]

"After the Jewish revolts against Rome (AD 66-74, AD 132-135) most Christians dissociated themselves from the Jews. The Jewish Christians' refusal to support the revolts caused them to be regarded as national enemies. From this time few Jews were converted to Christianity.

"Increasingly Christians came to regard Jews as deliberate haters of the good. When the church became recognized by Constantine, legal discrimination against Jews increased and they were gradually deprived of all rights." [p. 594, The History of Christianity, Lion Publishing, 1990.]

* * * * *

It was the generation following the destruction of the Temple which brought about a final rupture between Jews and Christians .... In the third rebellion against Rome [132-135 A.D.], when the Christians were unable to accept bar Kochba as their Messiah, they declared that their kingdom was of the other world, and withdrew themselves completely from Judaism and everything Jewish. The alienation process was completed. Judaism and Christianity became strangers to each other .... A wall of misunderstanding and hate was erected by the narrow zealotries of the two faiths. [pp. 152, 153, Jews, God and History, Max I. Dimont, A Signet Book, 1962.]

* * * * *

"[Bar Kochba] ... tortured and killed the Christians who refused to aid him against the Roman army." [p. 42, Greek Apologists of the Second Century, Robert M. Grant, The Westminster Press, 1988.]

"Another Christian apologist, Justin [Martyr], tells how ... Bar Kochba, the leader of the insurrection, ordered Christians alone to be executed if they would not deny and curse Jesus the Messiah." [Ibid.]

"After the war [some time after 135 A.D.] the Jerusalem church, once Jewish, consisted only of Gentiles."[Ibid.][7]

We can see one clear example of the very unChristian hatred for the Jews and everything Jewish (including the "Jewish" name of God, Jehovah) by the 2^nd century Gentile "Christians" by examining their treatment of an extremely important custom. Jesus had commanded them to keep an observance memorial of his death like he had done with his disciples at the "Last Supper" on the Passover. The first Christians, then, observed the Memorial of Christ's death every Nisan 14^th evening on the Passover (which most often did not fall on a Saturday or Sunday) by eating the Memorial Bread and drinking the Memorial wine. At some point this observance, commanded by Jesus, was greatly altered. It came to be observed at sunrise, only on a Sunday morning, and deliberately scheduled never to be at the time of the "hated" Jewish Passover. (It also later came to be called "Easter" in the northern lands of Christendom - see the HOLIDAYS study.)

When did this change come about? Well, we know that at the infamous Nicene Council (325 A.D.) a date was officially assigned (and enforced) "throughout the world" that was intentionally always different from the date of the Jewish Passover. Why? So "that none should hereafter follow the blindness of the Jews" - p. 859, Encyclopedia Britannica, Vol. 7, 14^th ed.

We don't know exactly when this anti-Jewish reaction against the original Christ-commanded Memorial actually began in earnest (a good guess, however, would be 135 A.D. or shortly thereafter). But we do know that "By 180 A.D. the latter custom [`Easter' celebrated on the non-Passover date and always on a Sunday] prevailed generally" and that Pope Victor I (189-198 A.D.) "demanded uniformity and threatened to excommunicate" the minority of churches which still hung onto the original Jewish Passover date. - p. 190, Vol. 6, Encyclopedia International, Grolier, 1966.

A few churches still clung to the Apostolic custom for a while but were treated as heretics by the newly "orthodox" majority.

"It is true that from the middle of the second century onwards there is a strong reaction towards standardization in both faith and order; diversities in dogmatic formulation, in matters of liturgical practice (such as the observance of Easter), and in the text of Scripture began to be smoothed out.... it is painfully evident that those [Christians] who celebrated Easter on the same day as the Jewish Passover [Quartodecimans] were not motivated by special friendliness towards Judaism [Chadwick then refers to a strong anti-Jewish `Easter' sermon by Quartodeciman Bishop Melito (ca. A.D. 160-170)] .... but there can be little doubt that the Quartodecimans were right in thinking that they had preserved the most ancient and Apostolic custom. They had become heretics simply by being behind the times." - p. 85, The Early Church, Henry Chadwick, Dorset Press, 1986 printing.

What's in a name? III

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The New Encyclopedia Britannica states that the

"earliest Christians celebrated the Lord's Passover at the same time as the Jews, during the night of the first (paschal) full Moon of the first month of spring (Nisan 14-15). By the middle of the 2^nd century, most churches had transferred this celebration to the Sunday after the Jewish feast."

From this time - "middle of the 2^nd century" (180 A. D., at least) - until the blasphemous Nicene Council (325 A. D.) "Hostility against Jews and Jewish customs led to formal debates [about the date for "Easter"] in councils of the Church." - How It Started, Garrison, p. 49, Abingdon Press, 1972.

With the example of the extremely important "Easter/Passover" reaction of the Gentile "Christians" in mind we should not be surprised that these same Jewish-hating people changed the Hebrew name of the "Jewish" God during their attempts to "smooth out" "the text of Scripture" during the same time period. In fact it would be surprising if they hadn't.

Remember, these "Christians" were mostly Greek (or Latin) speaking Gentiles. It was relatively easy for them to change all the instances of Yahweh and Yah to "Lord" or "God" since those words clearly stood out from the rest of the Greek writing in their Hebrew characters. But what if the hated name had been incorporated into other words and then transliterated into Greek by the original Septuagint translators? Would the name-removing Greek-speaking copyists still recognize it? Apparently not.

We find that when the shortened form of the Divine Name (Jah) was left in Hebrew characters by the original Jewish translators of the Septuagint, the "Christian" copyists always changed it to "Lord." But when the original Jewish translators had incorporated it with another word or words (as in proper names, e.g., "Elijah" [which means "God is Jehovah" - p. 674, Today's Dictionary of the Bible, Bethany House Publ., 1982] or in the phrase "Praise ye Jehovah" [Hallelu JAH]) and transliterated it into Greek characters, it became an acceptable "Greek" word (although one whose meaning they didn't wholly understand) to the "Christian" copyists, and they didn't change it (out of ignorance only). This is very obvious in the "Hallelujah" Psalms where, for some reason, the original Septuagint translators combined the two Hebrew words Hallelu ("Praise ye") and Jah ("Jehovah") and then put that new word into GREEK characters (which still had the Hebrew pronunciation of "Hallelujah").

When the 2^nd century Jew-despising "Christian" copyists saw "Jah" in Hebrew characters, they always removed it entirely or changed it to "Lord" or "God" - e.g., Ex. 15:2; Ps. 68:4, 18; Is. 26:4. But when they saw the Greek characters of "HalleluJAH" ( JAllhlouia) they always left it unchanged:

All uses of an independent (standing alone, not attached to other words or names) "Jah" in the Hebrew Scriptures as translated by the modern Greek Septuagint:


* - Ex. 15:2

* - Ex. 17:16

K - Ps. 68:4 (:5 Heb.)

* - Ps. 68:18 (:19)

K - Ps. 77:11 (:12)

K - Ps. 89:8 (:9)

K - Ps. 94:7

K - Ps. 94:12

K - Ps. 102:18 (:19)

H - Ps. 104:35


________________________
_/ H - Ps. 105:45 - Combined

\ H - Ps. 106:1 in Sept.___



H - Ps. 106:48

H - Ps. 111:1

H - Ps. 112:1

H - Ps. 113:1

H - Ps. 113:9

K - Ps. 115:17

K - Ps. 115:18a

H - Ps. 115:18b

H - Ps. 116:19

H - Ps. 117:2

K - Ps. 118:5a

* - Ps. 118:5b

K - Ps. 118:14

K - Ps. 118:17

K - Ps. 118:18

K - Ps. 118:19

K - Ps. 122:4

K - Ps. 130:3

H - Ps. 135:1

K - Ps. 135:3

K - Ps. 135:4

H - Ps. 135:21

H - Ps. 146:1


________________________
_ /H - Ps. 146:10 - Combined

\H - Ps. 147:1 in Sept.____


________________________
_/H - Ps. 147:20 - Combined

\H - Ps. 148:1 in Sept.____



________________________
_/H - Ps. 148:14 - Combined

\H - Ps. 149:1 in Sept.____


_______________________
_/H - Ps. 149:9 - Combined

\H - Ps. 150:1 in Sept.____



K - Ps. 150:6a

* - Ps. 150:6b

* - Ca. 8:6

K - Is. 12:2

Th Is. 26:4

Th - Is. 38:11

................................................

* - Reworded to eliminate use of Jah, “God,” and “Lord” in existing Sept. MSS.

K - Jah has been replaced with Kurios (‘Lord’) in extant Sept. MSS.

Th - Jah has been replaced with Theos (‘God’) in extant Sept. MSS.

H - Jah has been transliterated into Greek letters of HalleluJAH in Sept.

What's in a name?IV

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Notice that everywhere Jah is used by itself (except when accompanied by hallel) it has been changed by the “Christian” copyists. However, whenever Jah was accompanied by Hallel (“Praise”), the original Septuagint translators incorporated it with Hallel into a single word and then wrote it out in Greek characters (transliterated it) keeping the Hebrew pronunciation of Hallel and JAH !

"Psalms 113-118 are traditionally referred to as the `Hallel Psalms,' because they have to do with praise to God for deliverance from Egyptian bondage under Moses. Because of this, they are an important part of the traditional Passover service. There is no reason to doubt that these were the hymns sung by Jesus and his disciples on Maundy Thursday when he instituted the Lord's Supper (Matt. 26:30).

"The word halal is the source of `Hallelujah,' a Hebrew expression of `praise' to God which has been taken over into virtually every language of mankind. The Hebrew `Hallelujah' is generally translated [falsely], `Praise the Lord!' The Hebrew is more technically [more honestly] translated `Let us praise Yah,' the term `Yah' being a shortened form of `Yahweh,' the unique Israelite name for God." - p. 301, - Nelson's Expository Dictionary of the Old Testament, Unger and White, Thomas Nelson Publ., 1980.

"Hallelujah - Praise ye Jehovah - frequently rendered [falsely] `Praise Ye the Lord" - p. 276. "Jah - a shortened form of `Jehovah,'" - p. 322, Today's Bible Dictionary, Bethany House Publishers, 1982.

"HALLELUJAH ... `praise ye Jehovah'; allelouia .... In the NT [Hallelujah] is found as part of the song of the heavenly host (Rev. 19:1 ff)." - p. 1323, Vol. 2, The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, Eerdmans Publ., 1984 printing.

"hallelujah: (Heb., hillel, he praises; Jah, form of Yahweh-Jehovah....) Literally, Praise ye Yahweh." - p. 320, An Encyclopedia of Religion, Ferm (editor), 1945 ed.

"HALLELUJAH - HALLELOUIA [in NT Greek] signifies `Praise ye Jah.' .... In the N.T. it is found in Rev. 19:1, 3, 4, 6, as the keynote in the song of the great multitude in Heaven. Alleluia, without the initial H, is a misspelling." - p. 520, W. E. Vine, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, Thomas Nelson, Inc., Publishers, 1980.

"ALLELUIA, the Greek form (Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6) of the Hebrew Hallelujah = Praise ye Jehovah, which begins or ends several of the psalms (106, 111, 112, 113, etc.)." – Easton's Bible Dictionary, Thomas Nelson Publ., 1897.

The NT Greek text does have the initial `H' sound. The "misspelling" is in certain English translations (e.g., KJV) which drop the beginning `H' sound: "Alleluia"! However, most respected modern translations do have "Hallelujah" in Rev. 19 (e.g., NIV, NASB, RSV, NRSV, ASV, REB, MLB, Mo, and Barclay).

"Hallelujah....is derived from halal, which means to praise, and Jah, which is the name of God .... here in this chapter [Rev. 19] the original Hebrew form transliterated into Greek, is retained." - p. 169, Vol. 2, William Barclay, The Revelation of John, Revised Edition, The Daily Study Bible Series, Westminster Press, 1976.

"Alleluia, so written in Rev. 19:6, foll., or more properly Hallelujah, Praise ye Jehovah ...." - p. 31. "Jah (Jehovah), the abbreviated form of Jehovah ... The identity of Jah and Jehovah is strongly marked in two passages of Isaiah - 12:2; 26:4." - p. 276, Smith's Bible Dictionary, William Smith, Hendrickson Publ.

"Trust ye in Jehovah for ever; for in Jehovah [`Heb. JAH' - ASV f. n.], even Jehovah [YHWH], is an everlasting rock." - Is. 26:4, ASV.

Yes, Jah is equivalent to Jehovah. Two different forms of the very same PERSONAL NAME of God. (This is likely equivalent to the way Greek manuscripts often abbreviated "God" [qeoV] as qV. If so, Jah would still be pronounced "Jehovah" or "Yahweh" - see the PRONOUNCE study.)

Psalm 68:4, King James Version - "Sing unto God, sing praises to his name; extol him...by his name JAH [`Jehovah' - ASV; LB]..."

Of course, the Gentile manuscript copyists of later centuries probably did not know that "Abijah"("The Father is Jehovah"), "Elijah," ("God is Jehovah"), etc. are transliterations that actually use the shortened form of God's personal name ("Jah") and certainly didn't know that "Hallelujah" (Rev. 19:1, 3, 4, 6) is really Hebrew for "Praise Jah" or they would have surely changed them all also. However, the inspired Jewish Christians who actually wrote the original NT manuscripts certainly knew that writing or proclaiming aloud "Hallelu JAH!" (whether in Hebrew characters or Greek characters) was writing (or proclaiming aloud) God's personal name. If the Jewish Christian and Apostle John had left God's name out of the NT originally, he surely would not have then used "Hallelu JAH!" in four places in Revelation 19, for he knew exactly what it truly said: "Praise ye Jehovah"! Only the Hebrew-ignorant Gentile "Christian" copyists would be fooled by "Hallelujah" exactly as they were when they removed and changed the Divine Name in the Septuagint about the same time)!

Actually, then, "Jehovah" IS found in ALL existing MSS of the NT which include Rev. 19.

The extreme importance of this must not be overlooked or minimized. The last book of the Bible (and one of the last to be inspired and written) reasserts and re-emphasizes the extreme importance of God's only eternal personal name. In the "keynote in the song of the great multitude" worshipers of the true God are commanded to praise "our God": "Give praise to our God (ainete [to theo] hemon). Present active imperative [the form used for commands] of aineo." - p. 488, Vol. 6, A. T. Robertson's Word Pictures.

What's in a name?V

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And exactly who is the God whom all are commanded to praise? "God who sits on the throne" (19:4) is the Father, Jehovah alone. See all other instances of the God seated on the throne in the Book of Revelation (e.g., Rev. 4:2, 8; 5:6, 7, 16; 7:9). "The Lord our God the Almighty [pantokrator]" (Rev. 19:6) is never used of the Son (nor anyone else), but only the Father, Jehovah alone. E.g., 2 Cor. 6:18 says: "And I will be a Father unto you, and ye shall be my sons and daughters, saith the Lord Almighty [pantokrator]." Yes, the only person called God in the Book of Revelation is always the Father. (Rev. 1:6 - "[Jesus Christ] has made us to be a kingdom, priests to his God and Father.") So how do God's true worshipers respond when commanded to praise this God Almighty seated on the throne? "HALLELU JAH!" ("Praise JEHOVAH!").

"Jehovah ... This is my eternal name, to be used throughout all generations." - Ex. 3:15, LB.

If "Hallelujah" had not been, for some unknown reason, combined into a single word by the original translators of the Septuagint[8] (or by very early copyists) and was therefore misunderstood by the Gentile "Christian" copyists of the second century, then even this last (and most important) use of "Jehovah" would have been eliminated from all of the NT Greek Scriptures.

As it is, however, the exclusive name of God was miraculously preserved in the Hebrew manuscripts of the OT (even after the Jews finally succumbed to the superstitious practice of never pronouncing aloud that supremely important name that still appeared written in their OT manuscripts). It was miraculously preserved in the Septuagint, the ancient Greek manuscripts of the OT. (Even after later copyists changed nearly all instances into "Lord" or "God," it remained in the "Hallelujahs.")[9] It was miraculously preserved in the Greek NT manuscripts. (Even after copyists changed nearly all instances into "Lord" or "God," it, too, remained in the single-worded "Hallelujahs.") And it was miraculously preserved in the extremely significant statement of Ps. 83:18 in the English of the King James Version which took away "Jehovah" and substituted "LORD" nearly everywhere else (nearly 7000 times).

So on the basis of the many clear, unquestioned teachings of the OT (and since I believe the two "Testaments" must not so completely contradict each other in such an important area), I am forced to the conclusion that "YHWH" and "YAH" have been removed from the NT in most cases (at the very least in places where the OT is quoted or clearly alluded to). Zech. 12:10 is an example of a similar "contradiction" of the OT with the NT which is resolved by the undeniably certain testimony of one of them (John 19:37 in the NT) versus the questionable testimony of the available manuscripts of the other (OT) - see the MINOR study. In the case of God's Name the evidence from the OT is much more overwhelming concerning its extreme importance (and the necessity of its being universally known and reverently used) than the evidence for a discontinuation of the use of that name in existing copies of NT MSS.

Remember, the trinitarian The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology tells us that the custom of writing the tetragrammaton in copies of the Septuagint "was retained by later Jewish translators of the OT in the first centuries A.D." - Vol. 2, p. 512. So the name was in the very copies (whether in the Hebrew or the Septuagint) which were read and quoted by the inspired NT writers themselves!

And Prof. George Howard of the University of Georgia tells us:

"When the Hebrew form for the divine name was eliminated in favor of Greek substitutes [`Lord,' `God'] in the Septuagint [after `the first centuries A. D.'], it was eliminated also from the New Testament quotations of the Septuagint .... Before long it was lost to the Gentile Church except insofar as it was reflected in the contracted surrogates or remembered by scholars." - Biblical Archaeology Review, March 1978.

This removal of God's name was obviously done in a parallel manner (and at approximately the same time - probably near the time of the Jewish rebellion of 135 A.D. - and by the same people[10]) to the same changes being made in the Septuagint. These are the same "Christians" in the same time period who (probably for the same reasons) radically changed the Memorial Celebration of Jesus' death. Observance of this extremely important ceremony was commanded by Jesus, instituted by the Apostles, and continued until after the deaths of the Apostles when an intense anti-Jewish attitude within Christendom began to dominate (135 A.D. and after).

However, in spite of strong circumstantial evidence (including motive, opportunity, and a history of similar activity [modus operandi] as discussed above), the only real proof we have of the desecration of God's name in copies of the NT manuscripts is the incredibly clear and repeatedly emphasized statement of the OT concerning the never-changing, essential importance of God's personal name (to him and us). There is no other teaching in the entire OT that is any clearer or more emphatic than this. If this is really contradicted by the testimony of the original inspired NT manuscripts, then nothing can be relied upon in scripture, and all is lost.

Either the eternal Holy Name of God is as important forever to all generations and nations as the OT insists emphatically and repeatedly, or it isn't. If it isn't, we simply cannot trust the Bible as the word of God. If it is, then, either the NT has had that essential, eternal name removed in many places, or it is not the word of God. I still believe that both "Testaments" are the word of God and must reveal clearly all essential and important knowledge that we need to worship God in spirit and truth.

Therefore, the best conclusion is that "Jehovah" has been eliminated from the existing copies of the NT manuscripts exactly as it has been removed from existing copies of the Septuagint OT MSS. (And exactly as "Christian" translators have most often removed that name from the OT in English Bible translations - e.g., KJV; RSV; NASB; NIV; NRSV; etc.) The restoring of this most-important name to the NT in the NWT should cause rejoicing. Instead it is one of the most criticized (often angrily, with hateful attacks) features of the NWT. The very same spirit which has prompted Christendom (illogically) to actually remove that only personal name of the only true God from the original Greek manuscripts of the Old Testament AND from even the most "literal" of translations of the original Hebrew manuscripts of the OT (KJV, NASB, RSV, NIV, etc.) still motivates and influences most of Christendom today.

What's in a name?VI

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The more diligent in prayer are wont to subjoin in their prayers the `Hallelujah,' and such kind of psalms, in the closes of which the company respond. And, of course, every institution is excellent which, for the extolling and honoring of God, aims unitedly to bring Him enriched prayer" - Tertullian (3rd cent. A.D.), ch. 27, `On Prayer,' The Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol. 3, Eerdmans Publ., 1993 printing.

"And afterwards the deacon holding the mingled cup of the oblation shall say the Psalm from those in which is written `Hallelujah' [in the Septuagint].... And afterwards the bishop having offered the cup as is proper for the cup, he shall say the Psalm `Hallelujah.' And all of them as he recites the Psalms shall say `Hallelujah,' which is to say: We praise Him who is God most high" - Hippolytus (c. 160-235 A.D.), `The Apostolic Tradition,' 26:29-30 as quoted from The Treatise on the Apostolic Tradition of St. Hippolytus of Rome, The Alban Press, London, 1992 ed.

...........................................................................

NOTES

1. The word used in the Hebrew is shav or, more accurately, shawa' (!&X) which is rendered in the NASB as vain, deceit, deceitful, deception, false, falsehood, lies, etc. - p. 1602, New American Standard Exhaustive Concordamce of the Bible, #7723, Holman Publ., 1981.

------------------------------------------------------------------

A Concise Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon of the Old Testament - shawa' : "…. misuse a name Ex. 20:7" - p. 360, Eerdmans, 1981.

"shawa' `deceit; deception; malice; falsity; vanity; emptiness.' The 53 occurrences of shawa' are primarily in poetry.

"The basic meaning of this word is `deceit' or `deception,' `malice,' and `falsehood.' This meaning emerges when shawa' is used in a legal context [e.g.]: `Put not thine hand with the wicked to be an unrighteous [`deceitful'] witness' (Exod. 23:1).^* Used in cultic contexts, the word bears these same overtones [deceit, falsehood] but may be rendered variously. For example, in Ps. 31:6 the word may be rendered `vain' (KJV, `lying'), in the sense of `deceitful' (Cf. Ezek. 12:24). Eliphaz described the ungodly as those who trust in `emptiness' or `deception,' though they gain nothing but emptiness as a reward for that trust (Job 15:31)." - p. 91, Nelson's Expository Dictionary of the Old Testament, Thomas Nelson, Inc., 1980.

_________

^* Ex. 23:1 - shawa' is rendered as `false' or `lying' in this scripture in most Bibles. Here is the full rendering as found in NRSV: "You shall not spread a false [shawa'] report. You shall not join hands with the wicked to act as a malicious witness." If the meaning is `deceit' or `deception' or `falsehood' when used in a legal context, as here, it should also be understood in this way at Ex. 20:7 (`malice' does not fit the context of this verse), which is the ultimate in legal contexts! It should, therefore, probably be rendered something like: "You must not deceitfully misuse the name of Jehovah." It is even possible, since the word nasa may be translated as `take away' (among many other meanings), that it could be rendered: "You must not, by deceit, take away the name of Jehovah."

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"Deceit. - The misleading of another by word or deed, in which it is equivalent to falsehood (Pr 14²⁵, Hos 12⁷) .... It is so characteristic an element of evil that it is frequently used in Scripture as synonymous with it (Ps 119¹¹⁸, Jer 7⁵)." - p. 583, Vol.1, A Dictionary of the Bible, Hastings, Hendrickson Publ., 1988 printing.

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The Greek word used at Ex. 20:7 to render the Hebrew shawa' in the ancient Greek Septuagint is mataios (mataioV).

"mataios means `worthless because deceptive or ineffectual.' .... It may be pointed out that ... `taking in vain' [mataios, mataioV] is a phrase for [deceitful or lying] misuse of the name of God in Ex. 20:7." - pp. 571, 572, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, ["Little Kittel"], Eerdmans Publ., 1985.

"The [Greek Septuagint] used mataios ... to translate various Hebrew words .... [including shawa'] .... These words all denote the various ways in which man can resist the reality of God in His revelation and claims on him." - p. 550, The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Vol. 1, Zondervan, 1986.

What else could you call the deceitful misuse of God's name by most trinitarian Bible translators (and trinitarian "scholars" and preachers who defend it)? What else could you call the conscious, deliberate removal of God's only personal name in nearly 7000 places where it was originally written in the inspired scriptures and the conscious, deliberate replacement of that God-given name with an entirely different word (usually LORD) in most trinitarian Bibles? What could more clearly be called the "misuse" of God's Name? What could be more appropriate than calling it shawa' or mataios (`deceitful,' `lying')?

The very trinitarian Zondervan Publishing House has published a book by trinitarian scholars Dr. Sakae Kubo and Prof. Walter Specht entitled So Many Versions? It is an examination and critique of the most popular Bible translations of the 20th century. In the chapter devoted to the New King James Version this book says concerning a spurious verse added to 1 John 5 by later copyists:

"The brochure advertising this revision [the NKJV] gives as the purpose of the project "to preserve and improve the purity of the King James Version." To improve the purity would surely include the removal from the text of any scribal additions that were not a part of the autographs [original writing]. No devout reader of the Bible wants any portion of the sacred text as penned by the original authors removed. But neither should he want later additions, in which some passages have crept into the text, published as part of the Word of God." - p. 294, So Many Versions?, Zondervan Publ., 1983 ed.

And yet, in the most blatant and God-defying act of this kind, these two scholars (and most other scholars, priests, preachers, and teachers of trinitarian Christendom) condone the removal of God's only personal name from the original inspired scriptures and its deceitful replacement with an entirely different word and its entirely different meaning!

Yes, even one of the Ten Commandments itself clearly points out one of the major deceptions of most of the trinitarian churches and sects in modern Christendom and condemns it most strongly!

2. Not only is "Jehovah" more used today than "Yahweh," but it is still the preferred usage at some of the highest levels in the U.S. today.

On October 11, 2001, in a nationwide televised memorial to those slain at the Pentagon in the aircraft terrorism disaster, the Chief Chaplain of the U.S. Armed Forces gave the opening prayer. Assembled there were the families of the victims, members of Congress, ex-President Clinton, members of the Cabinet, and President George W. Bush. The Chaplain opened by praying to the Creator God and identified Him by name as "Jehovah"!

Then, after Secretary of Defense Rumsfeld spoke, and before the President was to speak, the Band played "The Battle Hymn of the Republic" which repeatedly has the refrain "Glory, Glory Hallelujah." `Hallelujah,' of course, means literally "Praise Jah" ("Praise Jehovah")!

3. "Notice this comment by Robert Hanhart, who contributed the Introduction to `The Septuagint as Christian Scripture.' He stated therein that, `All Greek biblical texts of Jewish origin found to date, whether from pre-Christian or Christian times, transmit the name ['Jehovah'] not in the form ['Lord'] encountered in all the LXX [Septuagint] manuscripts of Christian origin, but in some form of the Tetragrammaton.' (See: `The Septuagint as Christian Scripture,' 2002, book, p.7, by Martin Hengel. Introduction by Robert Hanhart, published by Baker Academic. ISBN 0-8010-2790-X)." - http://www.2001translation.com/Jehovah.htm [2001 Translation – An American English Bible] – Emphasis added.

What's in a name?VII

 

Find article here.

 

 

 

 

4. There is strong evidence that Matthew (and possibly other NT writers) wrote his Gospel in Hebrew (Aramaic). If this is so, the inspired Bible writer would surely have used the personal name of God! The Hebrew manuscripts at that time (and for many hundreds of years thereafter) contained the Name nearly 7000 times. Whenever Matthew (and the Hebrew-speaking Jesus and his Apostles) quoted from the Hebrew scriptures, he would have used the Name just as it is found in the Hebrew scriptures.

The WT Society also believes Matthew wrote his Gospel in Hebrew (Aramaic):

"In the fourth century, Jerome, who translated the Latin Vulgate, reported: `Matthew, who is also Levi, and who from a publican came to be an apostle, first of all composed a Gospel of Christ in Judaea in the Hebrew language.... Who translated it after that in Greek is not sufficiently ascertained. Moreover, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the library at Caesarea.' Since Matthew wrote in Hebrew, it is inconceivable that he did not use God's name, especially when quoting from parts of the `Old Testament' that contained the name." - p. 24, The Divine Name That Will Endure Forever, WTBTS, 1984.

Noted trinitarian scholar F. F. Bruce agrees that the Gospel of Matthew (at least) was originally written in Hebrew (Aramaic) and cites another source as evidence:

"Aramaic is known to have been the common language of Palestine, and especially of Galilee, in the time of Christ, and was in all probability the language which He and his Apostles habitually spoke. The New Testament writers usually call it `Hebrew,' thus not distinguishing between it and its sister language in which most of the Old Testament was written. Now, we have evidence of an early Aramaic document in another fragment of Papias [c. 60-130 A. D.]: `Matthew compiled the Logia [literally, "the collection" - Thayer] in the `Hebrew' speech [i.e. Aramaic], and everyone translated them [into Greek] as best he could.' " - p. 38, The New Testament Documents, Eerdmans Publ., 1992 printing.

So, whether originally written in Greek or "Hebrew," the writings of the New Testament should have used the Name of God, especially in quotes from the Old Testament.

And when we restore the name of God to the NT, we eliminate the confusing contradiction of Matt. 22:43-45 and its parallels (Mk 12:36-37; Lk. 20:42-44) where Jesus quoted Ps. 110:1.

"How does David in the Spirit call him `Lord,' [kurios] saying, `The Lord [kurios] said to my Lord [kurios], "sit at my right hand, until I put thine enemies beneath thy feet." ' If David then calls him `Lord,' [kurios] how is he his son?" - Matt. 22:43-45, NASB.

Literally this says in the NT Greek:

"How therefore David in spirit is calling him Lord [kurios] saying Said `Lord [kurios] to the Lord [kurios] of me Be sitting out of right hand of me until likely I should put the enemies of you beneath the feet of you'? If therefore David is calling him Lord [kurios], how son of him is he?"- The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures, WTB&TS, 1985.

First, of course, it doesn't say "The Lord said..."; it actually says "Lord said..." because the original was "Jehovah" (without "the," of course) and "Lord" was substituted for this name later (still without "the").

Second, in this version there are two uses of "Lord" [kurios], but Jesus speaks as though there is only one (because there really was only one "Lord" [kurios in the Greek here] at the time he spoke it! The other word that later copyists changed to kurios was originally "Jehovah" as can be seen by actually looking at the OT manuscripts that have the scripture Jesus was quoting!).

Third, not only is it confusing to have two uses of kurios here, but, if we insist on this version, it would be grammatically much more accurate to select the first use of this word (the substitute for "Jehovah") as the one Jesus was referring to. Since he said, "If David calls him `Lord'..." but not "David calls him `the Lord' (or `my Lord')...", it would be proper to say that Jesus was referring to the first `Lord' (which is without the word "the") in that quote from the OT. In reality, of course, he was actually referring to the "second" use of kurios as found in modern texts! All this would be smoothed out if the name were simply restored to the NT where it obviously was originally: "Jehovah said to my Lord" as found in the original Hebrew Old Testament Scripture at Ps. 110:1 which Jesus was quoting - ASV.

"Since confession of Jesus as Lord was the mark of the Christian and since for Christians there was no other Lord, it was natural for Paul to speak of `the Lord' when he wished to refer to Jesus. It is true that the same title was used to refer to God the Father, and that this can lead to a certain ambiguity as to whether God or Jesus is meant (this is especially the case in Acts; ...); generally, however, `Lord' is used for God by Paul almost exclusively in quotations from the OT" - p. 590, New Bible Dictionary, Tyndale House Publ., 1982.

Again, if the name of God were restored, there would not be so much "ambiguity" because these uses of `Lord' in quotations from the OT were originally `Jehovah' and hence there was no ambiguity or risk of confusion at all until later copyists changed that divine name in the NT manuscripts to kurios!

5. Of course Jesus used the name "Jehovah" in such places. He was a speaker of Hebrew who was quoting (or reading) scripture to other speakers of Hebrew. Of course he would use the Hebrew scriptures rather than the Greek Septuagint scriptures when quoting to these people. It would have been ludicrous for Jesus to have quoted from the Septuagint to these people when most of them would not have understood the Greek language of the Septuagint in the first place.

The native-born Jews in Israel spoke, of course, Hebrew. The Roman conquerors and administrators of the Empire spoke Latin. And the many businessmen and commercial travelers who visited and resided in Israel understood, in addition to their own languages, the common language of commerce in the Mediterranean world: Greek.

Of course there were some Jews who could speak Latin and/or Greek. There were some Romans who could speak Greek (and probably even a very few who could speak Hebrew also). And there were undoubtedly some foreigners there who could speak Latin (and probably a very few who could speak Hebrew also). But, by and large, if you wished to communicate with the majority of the Jews, you would have to do it in Hebrew (or the closely-related Aramaic). And if you wished to communicate with the Romans, you would have to do it in Latin, and so on.

So when Jesus was teaching the Jews from the holy scriptures, he was doing so in Hebrew.

If we should doubt such an obvious conclusion that the majority of Jews did not understand Greek (and therefore Jesus would not have taught them by quoting or reading from the Greek Old Testament, the Septuagint), we only need to look at John 19:19, 20.

"And Pilate wrote an inscription also .... Therefore this inscription many of the Jews read, for the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city; and it was written in Hebrew, Latin, and in Greek." - NASB

Obviously the Latin was so the Romans could read the information about Jesus, and the Greek was so the foreign merchants and travelers could read about Jesus. But Pilate certainly would not have gone to the trouble of writing 1/3 of the sign in Hebrew if most of the Jews could already read one of the other two languages on that sign! It is obvious from this passage alone that many of them could not understand Greek and needed to read Hebrew to understand what Pilate wanted them to know!

Therefore, Jesus must have quoted from the Hebrew Bible when reading to the Jews. And the Hebrew Bible which he quoted at

Mt 21:42 actually says: "This is Jehovah's doing; it is marvelous in our eyes" (Ps. 118:23)

Mt 22:37 - "And you shall love Jehovah your God with all your heart..." (Deut. 6:5)

Mt 22:44 - "Jehovah said to my Lord: `Sit at my right hand...'" (Ps. 110:1)

Jn 12:38 - "... to whom has the arm of Jehovah been revealed?" (Is. 53:1)

6.

"Rabbi Yohanan and Rabbi Meir [`Second century rabbi who prepared a systematic edition of traditional Jewish law and doctrine, which paved the way for the final edition of the Mishnah' - p. 479, An Encyclopedia of Religion] are said to have made unfriendly puns on the word Euangelion [`the Greek word for "Gospel"' - p. 102] by altering its vowels to make it read 'Awen-gillayon or `Awon-gillayon, meaning [in Hebrew/Aramaic] something like `Iniquity of the Margin' ...." - p. 102, The New Testament Documents - Are they Reliable?, F. F. Bruce, Eerdmans Publ., 1992 printing.

So the word `margin' (gillayon) was used in a derogatory way for a Gospel ("most probably ... the Gospel according to Matthew" as first written in Hebrew or Aramaic - p. 102) of the Christians by these two very early Rabbis.

And when this word is made plural (`margins') it becomes gillayonim (or gilyohnim). Therefore, it is probable that this word was used derogatorily to denote copies of a Christian Gospel written in Hebrew (or Aramaic).

7. "From the middle of the 2^nd century AD [around 150 AD] Christians who had some training in Greek philosophy began to feel the need to express their faith in its terms [instead of the original traditional Jewish terms]" – The New Encyclopaedia Britannica.

8. We can see that the source of Halleluia in existing copies of the Septuagint is really two words in the original Hebrew. For example the Hahlayloo Yah of Psalm 146:1 is obviously two separate Hebrew words: Hahlayloo [`praise ye'] and Yah [`Jehovah']. And yet, our oldest existing copies of the ancient Septuagint show these two words combined into one `new' word in Greek: Halleluia. And the same Greek word, Halleluia [ JAllhlouia], which was found in the earliest copies of John's Revelation, was likewise treated by copyists of the 2nd century. Whether John himself had combined the two words into one for the benefit of those Hellenic Jews to whom he wrote (who were familiar with the term as it was found in the Septuagint) or whether early copyists had done it to conform with the Septuagint is not the point here.

9. And, of course, it was passed along from its Septuagint use to other early Christian writings:

"The more diligent in prayer are wont to subjoin in their prayers the `Hallelujah,' and such kind of psalms, in the closes of which the company respond. And, of course, every institution is excellent which, for the extolling and honoring of God, aims unitedly to bring Him enriched prayer as a choice victim." - Tertullian (3rd cent. A.D.), ch. 27, `On Prayer,' The Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol. 3, Eerdmans Publ., 1993 printing.

"And afterwards the deacon holding the mingled cup of the oblation shall say the Psalm from those in which is written `Hallelujah' [in the Septuagint].... And afterwards the bishop having offered the cup as is proper for the cup, he shall say the Psalm `Hallelujah.' And all of them as he recites the Psalms shall say `Hallelujah,' which is to say: We praise Him who is God most high" - Hippolytus (c. 160-235 A.D.), `The Apostolic Tradition,' 26:29-30 as quoted from The Treatise on the Apostolic Tradition of St. Hippolytus of Rome, The Alban Press, London, 1992 ed.

10. Dr. F. F. Bruce correctly points out that, strictly speaking, the LXX deals only with the Law and not the whole Old Testament. Bruce writes, "The Jews might have gone on at a later time to authorize a standard text of the rest of the Septuagint, but . . . lost interest in the Septuagint altogether. With but few exceptions, every manuscript of the Septuagint which has come down to our day was copied and preserved in Christian, not Jewish, circles." (The Books and the Parchments, p.150). This is important to note because the manuscripts which consist of our LXX today date to the third century AD. Although there are fragments which pre-date Christianity and some of the Hebrew DSS agree with the LXX, the majority of manuscripts we have of the LXX date well into the Christian era. And, not all of these agree. - http://www.purewords.org/kjb1611/html/septuag.htm - RDB.

On the supply side:pros and cons.

A giant leap for mankind?:pros and cons.

just a name?

Not so sharp after all.

Find article here.




Sharp's Rule: Primer

In an attempt to prove the trinity doctrine, Granville Sharp made up a rule in 1798. It is often called "Sharp's Rule" by trinitarians. It says, in effect, that when two or more words (nouns) in the original Greek New Testament (NT) text are joined by the word "and," they all refer to the same person if the word "the" (the article) comes before the first noun and not before the other noun(s).

For example, if we saw "the king and _master of the slave" in the Greek text of the Bible, it would always mean, according to Sharp, that only one person was being called both "king" and "master." ("King" and "master" are joined by "and" - - only "king" has the article.)

Sharp invented this rule after he noticed this particular construction (sometimes called a "Sharp's construction") was used with "God" and "Christ" in 5 places in the NT. If he could convince others that his "rule" was true, then they would think there was finally (after 1400 years of a "trinity" tradition) absolute grammatical Bible proof (see WALLACE study paper) that God and Jesus are the same "person"!

The 5 "proofs" of Jesus' Godhood according to Sharp are (in the literal wording of the original manuscripts):

(a) Titus 2:13: "of the great God and savior of us Christ Jesus"

τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ

(b) 2 Pet. 1:1: "righteousness of the God of us and savior Jesus Christ"

δικαιοσύνῃ τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ

(c) 2 Thess. 1:12:"the grace of the God of us and Lord Jesus Christ"

τὴν χάριν τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ

(d) 1 Tim. 5:21: "in sight of the God and Christ Jesus and the chosen angels"

ἐνώπιον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ καὶ τῶν ἐκλεκτῶν ἀγγέλων

(e) Eph. 5:5: "...in the kingdom of the Christ and God"

ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ θεοῦ

Since the first noun ("God" in the first four scriptures) has the article ("the") with it and the following noun ("savior" in the first two scriptures) does not have the article ("the"), then (according to Sharp) God and Christ (the savior, etc.) are the same person!

There are a number of reasons why Sharp's Rule, as applied to these 5 "proofs," is invalid (See the SHARP study paper). One important strike against it is the fact that even many respected trinitarian NT grammar experts and translators have rejected it as a valid rule - e.g., see G. B. Winer; J. H. Moulton; C. F. D. Moule; Dr. James Moffatt (see Titus 2:13; and 1 Tim. 5:21); Dr. William Barclay (2 Thess. 1:12); and Roman Catholic scholar Karl Rahner (2 Peter 1:1).

In vol. 5, p. 257 the respected The Expositor's Greek Testament says: "In the present case [Jude 1:4], however, the second noun (kupiov [“lord”]) belongs to the class of words which may stand without the article .... A similar doubtful case is found in Tit. ii. 13.... Other examples of the same kind are Eph. v. 5 ... 2 Thess. i: 12 ... 1 Tim. v. 21 (cf. 2 Tim. iv. 1) ... 2 Peter i. 1."

For example, examine the following trinitarian Bible's renderings of these "Sharp's Constructions":

2 Thess. 1:12 - KJV; KJIIV; NASB; NAB (1970); MLB; LB; GNB; RSV; NRSV; NIV.

Eph. 5:5 - KJV; KJIIV; RSV; NRSV; LB; MLB; NIV; NEB; REB; GNB; TEV; NAB (`70,'91).

2 Tim. 4:1 - most trinitarian Bibles.

1 Tim. 6:13 - all trinitarian Bibles.

These many respected Bibles, translated by expert trinitarian New Testament scholars, clearly disregard Sharp's "Rule" at these (and other) places and show two persons being spoken of!

Notice Eph. 5:5, for example. Most trinitarian Bibles translate this example of Sharp's Construction: "in the kingdom of Christ and of God" - KJV; NRSV; RSV; NIV; NEB; REB; NAB; Douay; MLB; LB; GNB; TEV; The Amplified Bible; Third Millenium Bible; New Living Translation; New Century Version; God's Word; Holman Christian Standard Bible; Wesley's New Testament; Phillips; and the Webster Bible. This is not the way it would be translated if the two descriptions were of the same person! (At the very least it would be rendered more literally as "the kingdom of the Christ and God.") Instead it clearly shows two persons!

Even trinitarian scholar Murray J. Harris notes, in discussing Eph. 5:5, that “It is highly improbable that Paul would introduce a profound, unqualified doctrinal affirmation (Christ is theos) in an incidental manner [such as here], in a context where the assertion is not crucial to the flow of argument.” - p. 262, Jesus as God, Baker Book House, 1992.

Also, 1 Tim. 6:13 is translated in trinitarian Bibles as: "before (in the sight or presence of) God ... and before Christ Jesus...". Although Sharp's Rule insists that this should be translated to show that it is speaking of the same person, it obviously is not! Most trinitarian grammar experts simply do not believe Sharp's Rule is a valid absolute rule!

Of the many reasons invalidating Sharp's Rule grammatically there are at least two of extreme importance - each of which is conclusive by itself.

(1) Prepositional Constructions (with phrases containing prepositions: "of God;" "in the Lord;" "God of...;" etc.) are known by NT grammarians to cause uncertainty of article usage. That is, if a prepositional phrase (including genitives) is attached to a word, that word may sometimes have the article ("the") and sometimes not have it -- without changing the intended meaning! (See A. T. Robertson, pp. 780, 790, 791; C. F. D. Moule, p. 117; J. H. Moulton, pp. 175, 179-180; et al.)

This means that the NT writers sometimes wrote, for example, "The God of me" (with article) and "_God of me" (without article) with exactly the same intended meaning. The definite article ("the") was ambiguous in such cases.

Therefore any grammatical rules which depend on the presence or absence of the article in the NT Greek must not use as examples those scriptures which use a 'prepositional' construction attached to a word (noun) in question if they are to be used honestly and properly.

But if you examine the 5 trinitarian "proofs" above, you will see that they all use such prepositional constructions: "of us" in (a) Titus 2:13 and (b) 2 Peter 1:1 is a "prepositional" genitive, and even "savior" itself is a genitive in both scriptures and literally means "of savior;" "Lord" in (c) 2 Thess. 1:12 is a genitive and literally means "of Lord" (as rendered in the Modern Language Bible; Living Bible; Good News Bible; Douay Version; New American Bible [1970 ed.]; and Barclay's Daily Study Bible); "Christ" in (d)1 Tim. 5:21 is a genitive and literally means "of Christ" (as in the Good News Bible [and TEV]; New American Standard Bible; Modern Language Bible; Revised Standard Version; and New Revised Standard Version); and "God" in (e) Eph. 5:5 is a genitive and literally means "of God" (as in the King James Version; Revised Standard Version; New Revised Standard Version; Living Bible; New English Bible; Revised English Bible; Modern Language Bible; New American Bible (1970 and 1991); Douay Version; New International Version; Good News Bible; and Phillips translation).

Therefore all 5 Sharp's "proofs" are invalid on the basis of prepositional constructions alone!

(2) New Testament scholars, including noted trinitarian NT grammar experts, point out that the use of proper names ("John," "Moses," "Jesus," etc.) also causes uncertain article usage in NT Greek. (A. T. Robertson, Grammar, p. 791, and Word Pictures, p. 46, Vol. iv; C. F. D. Moule, p. 115; J. H. Moulton [Turner], Vol. 3, pp. 165-167; et. al.)

So not only did the NT Bible writers sometimes use the article and sometimes not use the article with the very same intended meaning with the very same proper name (e.g. "the James" and "James"), but even when a proper name is used as an appositive it also causes irregular article usage with the other associated nouns. - Robertson, pp. 760, 791.

For example, when "Jesus" and "Christ" are in apposition to each other ("Jesus Christ" or "Christ Jesus"), they are nearly always (96% of the time - see SHARP study paper) written without the definite article in the writings of Paul regardless of "Sharp's rule" or any other grammatical/syntactical consideration!

If we examine the first 4 of the 5 "proofs" above, we see that the proper name "Jesus" is used as an appositive with the word in question in each case! In other words, "Christ Jesus" is the appositive for "savior" in Titus 2:13. This means sometimes "savior" will have "the" with it in such a situation and sometimes it won't (with no change in meaning). "Jesus Christ" is the appositive for "savior" in 2 Peter 1:1, and article usage (or non-usage) with "savior" in the original NT Greek in such circumstances is virtually meaningless. "Jesus Christ" is in apposition to (an appositive for) "Lord" in 2 Thess. 1:12. And "Jesus" is in apposition (at least) to "Christ" in 1 Tim. 5:21. These examples, therefore, are completely invalid as evidence for Jesus being God even if there were actually some validity to Sharp's "Rule" with proper examples! And the 5th example, Eph. 5:5, is incredibly poor in context alone. Even noted trinitarian scholar A.T. Robertson has to admit that the 'evidence' of Eph. 5:5 is doubtful - Word Pictures, Vol. 14, pp. 46 and 543. No objective person could accept it alone as real evidence of Jesus' Godhood!

Some PREPOSITIONAL examples found in NT Greek:

"The God of Abraham and _God of Isaac and _God of Jacob" - Luke 20:37.

"The God of Abraham and the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob" - Matt. 22:32.

"James, _slave of God and _Lord Jesus Christ" - James 1:1

"By command of _God savior of us and _Christ Jesus" - 1 Tim. 1:1.

"I am the root and the offspring of David" - Rev. 22:16.

Some PROPER NAME examples found in NT Greek:

"having seen _Peter and _John" (no articles) - Acts 3:3.

"holding fast ... the Peter and the John" (both articles) - Acts 3:11.

"beholding the outspokenness of the Peter and _John" (Sharp's) - Acts 4:13.

"But the Peter and _John" (Sharp's construction) - Acts 4:19.

So we see the Bible writer who is recognized as the most knowledgeable in NT Greek (Luke) showing the great ambiguity of article usage with proper names. If we did not exclude proper names as valid examples, we would have to agree that either Luke believed Peter and John were the same person or that he was completely unaware of Sharp's Rule (or any first century equivalent)!

* * * * *

So, although we can find such constructions as "the king and master of the slave" where the first noun (with the definite article, `the') is the same person as the second noun (without the definite article), there is no grammatical reason that this must always be so. Such constructions as "the boy and girl" and "the President and Vice President" (found in Amendment XX [as ratified in 1933] of the Constitution of the United States of America), which refer to more than one individual, are just as grammatically correct in both English and NT Greek.