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Wednesday, 5 June 2024

On speaking truth while retaining ones bona fides in a one party state.

 Persecution and the Art of “Darwinist” Writing


I want to point out to you again Robert Shedinger’s striking review of avowed Darwinist and science writer Philip Ball’s new book. Shedinger observes the numerous self-contradictions in the work — a work by an excellent writer and a very smart man. Ball on one hand renounces intelligent design, in the clearest terms, and on the other, uses design language and design evidence. Writes Ball, “I do want to be clear…that there is no obvious challenge in any of what I have said or say hereafter to the core principles of Darwinism — or perhaps we should say of neo-Darwinism.” In reality, there is a range of “obvious challenges.” What’s going on here?

Political scientist Leo Strauss had a sharp idea that many writers, including some of the very best and very smartest, have used a system of hints as to their true beliefs that has involved deliberate self-contradiction. From the Wikipedia article:

In the late 1930s, Strauss called for the first time for a reconsideration of the “distinction between exoteric (or public) and esoteric (or secret) teaching.” In 1952 he published Persecution and the Art of Writing, arguing that serious writers write esoterically, that is, with multiple or layered meanings, often disguised within irony or paradox, obscure references, even deliberate self-contradiction. Esoteric writing serves several purposes: protecting the philosopher from the retribution of the regime, and protecting the regime from the corrosion of philosophy; it attracts the right kind of reader and repels the wrong kind; and ferreting out the interior message is in itself an exercise of philosophic reasoning. 

Taking his bearings from his study of Maimonides and Al-Farabi, and pointing further back to Plato’s discussion of writing as contained in the Phaedrus, Strauss proposed that the classical and medieval art of esoteric writing is the proper medium for philosophic learning: rather than displaying philosophers’ thoughts superficially, classical and medieval philosophical texts guide their readers in thinking and learning independently of imparted knowledge. Thus, Strauss agrees with the Socrates of the Phaedrus, where the Greek indicates that, insofar as writing does not respond when questioned, good writing provokes questions in the reader — questions that orient the reader towards an understanding of problems the author thought about with utmost seriousness.

Basically, the approach, in the face of persecution from the “regime,” is to inform discerning readers of what you really mean without being direct and getting yourself suppressed. The “right kind of reader” will take the hint and absorb the “esoteric” meaning.

From scientists and science writers, it’s far from the first time we’ve seen possible evidence of this kind of thing. Our colleague David Coppedge, for one, has documented many instances that, at least for me, raise the question. Self-contradiction is a staple in more than a little scientific literature that deals with issues of life’s origin, molecular machines, irreducible complexity, and the like. Please note: I’m not saying Philip Ball, or Denis Noble or anyone else in particular, has an esoteric agenda. But the trend in some scientific writing is too noticeable to ignore, and too persistent to deny. And of course, there is a scientific “regime” in the academy and in journalism that doesn’t hesitate to persecute.

Maybe, in the context of intelligent design as it is handled in some mainstream science literature, Strauss was onto something. The foundations of Darwin’s house may be shakier than many realize.

Our cars are snitches?

 

On the dark arts of ruling the kingdom of titans

 

On early Coptic translations re:John1:1

 Translating John 1:1: The Coptic Evidence


(Solomon Landers, September 2006)
The Coptic translation of John 1:1
1a. Š„‹‘…Š‚‹‹ŒŠ …Œ}†
1b. }‘Œ}†Š‚‹‹ŒŠŠ}„Ž‰ŒŠ‹‘
1c. }‘Š‘Š‹‘ŒŒ}†
It is becoming well-known that the primary Coptic translations of John 1:1c – the
Sahidic, the proto-Bohairic, and the Bohairic – do not render it “the Word was
God,” as is common in many English versions, but “the Word was a god,” found
notably in the New World Translation.
The significance of this is remarkable. First, the Coptic versions precede the New
World Translation by some 1,700 years, and are part of the corpus of ancient textual
witnesses to the Gospel of John. Second, the Coptic versions were produced at a
time when the Koine Greek of the Christian Greek Scriptures was still a living
language whose finer nuances could be understood by the Coptic translators, so
much so that many Greek words are left untranslated in the Coptic texts. Third,
the Coptic versions do not show the influence of later interpretations of Christology
fostered by the church councils of the 4
th
and 5
th
centuries CE.
The Greek text of John 1:1c says, E
construction that can be literally rendered as, “and a god was the Word.”
Likewise, the Sahidic Coptic text of John 1:1c reads, }‘Š‘Š‹‘Œ
Œ}†, an indefinite construction that literally says “and a god was the Word.”
Coptic grammarians agree that this is what the Coptic says literally. But the
theological presuppositions of certain grammarians do not allow them to be
satisfied with that reading. Just as they attempt to do with the Greek text of John
1:1c, certain Evangelical scholars seek to modify the clear impact of “a god was the
Word.”
But whereas the Greek text allows for some ambiguity in an anarthrous
construction, the Coptic text does not allow for the same ambiguity in an indefinite
construction. Unlike Koine Greek, Coptic has not only the definite article, but the
indefinite article also. Or, a Coptic noun may stand without the article, in the “zero
article” construction. Thus, in Coptic we may find : ŒŠ‹‘ , “the god,”
‹‘Š‹‘, “a god,” or Š‹‘, “god.”
The Sahidic Coptic indefinite article is used to mark “a non-specific individual or
specimen of a class: a morpheme marking an element as a non-specific or individual
or specimen of a class (“a man,” “other gods,” etc.).” – Coptic Grammatical
Chrestomathy (Orientalia Lovaniensia Analecta, 1988), A. Shisha-Halevy, p. 268
Given these clear choices, it cannot but be highly relevant to their understanding of
the meaning of John 1:1c that the Coptic translators of the Greek text chose to
employ the Coptic indefinite article in their translation of it.
Were the Coptic translators looking at John 1:1c qualitatively, as has been
suggested by some scholars in their analysis of the Greek text? That is not likely,
since the Coptic text does not use the abstract prefixes before the count noun for
god, Š‹‘. They were specifically calling the Word “a god,” and only in the
sense that a god is also “divine” can a translation in the order of “the Word was
divine” be glossed from the Coptic text. Whereas “the Word was divine” can be a
legitimate English paraphrase of the Coptic text, it is not the literal reading.
The Coptic evidence is significant given the fact that Bible scholars have roundly
chastised the New World Translation for its supposedly “innovative” rendering, “the
Word was a god” at John 1:1c. But this very way of understanding the Greek text
of John 1:1c now proves to be, not new, but ancient, the same translation of it as
given at a time when people still spoke the Greek that John used in composing his
Gospel.
But what about John 1:18, where the Coptic text has the definite article before
Š‹‘ with reference to the only[-begotten] Son: ŒŠ‹‘Œy•ŽŠ‹‘?
Certain Evangelical scholars have asked, ‘Is it reasonable that the Coptic
translators understood the Word to be “a god” at John 1:1 and then refer to him as
“the god,” or “God,” at John 1:18?’
That is a logical question, but the logic is backwards. Since John 1:1 is the
introduction of the Gospel, the more logical question is ‘Is it reasonable that the
Coptic translators understood the Word to be God at John 1:18 after referring to
him as “a god” at John 1:1c?’
No. Although the Coptic translators use the definite article at John 1:18 in
identifying the Word, this use is demonstrative and anaphoric, referring back to the
individual , “the one who” is previously identified as “a god” in the introduction.

Thus, John 1:18 identifies the Word specifically not as“God,” but as “the god”
previously mentioned who was “with” (“in the presence of,” Coptic: ŠŠ} Ž‰)
God. This god, who has an intimate association with his Father, is contrasted with
his Father, the God no one has ever seen.
A modern translation of the Coptic of John 1:18 is “No one has ever seen God at all.
The god who is the only Son in the bosom of his Father is the one who has explained
him,´as found at
http://copticjohn.com
Being closer in time to the original writings of the apostle John, and crafted at a
time when Koine Greek was still spoken and well-understood, the Coptic evidence
weighs heavily in the direction of those who see in the Gospels a Jesus who is not
God, but the Son of God, a divine being who is “the image of the invisible God,” but
not that Invisible God himself. This one is the Representative of his Father, who

declared the Good News of salvation to mankind, and sanctified his Father’s Name.

Against nincsnevem ad pluribus VII

 Nincs:No, I have already talked about this many times, John 10:34 does not establish at all that this is an existing category of θεός within the theological framework of the NT, and especially not that this is the default meaning. This is merely a quote that Christ uses here to argue "a forteriori", at the same time he distances himself from it, because he refers to it as "in *your* Law", 

Me: I call this the argument by wishful thinking. Let's look at the actual thoughts of our Lord.

John Ch.10:34,35NKJV"Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, “You are gods” ’? 35If HE(JEHOVAH)called them gods, to whom the WORD OF GOD came (and the Scripture CANNOT be broken),"

So the the unbreakable law of JEHOVAH Has established that a certain class of his exalted representatives can poetically be referred to as elohim/theos its not in mockery.

Deuteronomy Ch.10:17ASV"7For JEHOVAH your God, he is God of gods, and Lord of lords, the great God, the mighty, and the terrible, who regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward"

Obviously to call JEHOVAH a God or a Lord of idols would be an insult but his exalted representatives have his full backing and thus are invincible. They are poetically called Gods and Lords in scripture on account of this divinely derived invincibility:

Brown driver and Briggs on elohim:a. rulers, judges, either as divine representatives at sacred places or as reflecting divine majesty and power: האלהים Exodus 21:6 (Onk ᵑ6, but τὸ κριτήριον τοῦ Θεοῦ ᵐ5) Exodus 22:7; Exodus 22:8; אלהים Exodus 22:8; Exodus 22:27 (ᵑ7 Ra AE Ew RVm; but gods, ᵐ5 Josephus Philo AV; God, Di RV; all Covt. code of E) compare 1 Samuel 2:25 see Dr.; Judges 5:8 (Ew, but gods ᵐ5; God ᵑ6 BarHebr.; יהוה ᵑ9 Be) Psalm 82:1; Psalm 82:6 (De Ew Pe; but angels Bl Hup) Psalm 138:1 (ᵑ6 ᵑ7 Rab Ki De; but angels ᵐ5 Calv; God, Ew; gods, Hup Pe Che).


b. divine ones, superhuman beings including God and angels Psalm 8:6 (De Che Br; but angels ᵐ5 ᵑ6 ᵑ7 Ew; God, RV and most moderns) Genesis 1:27 (if with Philo ᵑ7 Jerome De Che we interpret נעשה as God's consultation with angels; compare Job 38:7).


So this is an appeal to the authority of scripture. When these words were spoken the law covenant Was still in effect.

These are not self-styled Gods the scripture that proclaims them Gods cannot be broken as much as Mr.nevem wishes that it could.

Nincs:and otherwise the original psalm is mostly mocking about these judges, at all it does not break the fundamental and strict monotheism of Second Temple Judaism, which is also John's own (Deuteronomy 6:4, Isaiah 44:6).

Me:When Christ words were uttered the law was still in effect and it was that law that used elohim of angels and duly appointed Judges.

Psalms Ch.8:5NKJV"For You have made him a little lower than [d]the angels(elohim),

And You have crowned him with glory and honor".

Deuteronomy Ch.10:17ASV"7For JEHOVAH your God, he is God of gods, and Lord of lords, the great God, the mighty, and the terrible, who regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward"

* https://t.ly/CsF2b

* https://t.ly/esyel

Nowhere in the NT will you find a place that claims the exalted servants of God as θεοί in a actual, positive and affirmative sense. In all cases, it is consistently used in a condemning, mocking sense, for usurper, impostor "gods", like 2 Corinthians 4:4, 2 Thessalonians 2:4.

Totally irrelevant the Bible is a single work by a single author. Obviously the end of the law and the exalting of the the real Messiah of whom all the former were merely types and foreshadows would produce a reordering but the principle that JEHOVAH Had the authority to exalt any servant he wished to Godhood/Lordship is an eternal principle.

But like their Lord aspirants to this higher level of Godhood must endure trial and death as loyalists to him before inheriting same.

Revelation ch.3:21NIV"To the one who is victorious, I will give the right to sit with me on my throne, just as I was victorious and sat down with my Father on his throne."

Nincs:It is no coincidence that for example in Hebrews 2:7, the inspired author translates what the original psalmist wrote as "elohim" to "aggeloi" (angels). Why? Because, on a principle level, in the NT, calling actual "theoi" to created beings is kept away.

Me:more argument by assertion it could more plausibly asserted that the opposite was the aim in as much the Logos is being put under the authority these divine messengers

Paul was quoting from the septuagint it's translators were not motivated by this imaginary new Testament theology Mr. Nevem keeps babbling on about.