Nincs:No, I have already talked about this many times, John 10:34 does not establish at all that this is an existing category of θεός within the theological framework of the NT, and especially not that this is the default meaning. This is merely a quote that Christ uses here to argue "a forteriori", at the same time he distances himself from it, because he refers to it as "in *your* Law",
Me: I call this the argument by wishful thinking. Let's look at the actual thoughts of our Lord.
John Ch.10:34,35NKJV"Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, “You are gods” ’? 35If HE(JEHOVAH)called them gods, to whom the WORD OF GOD came (and the Scripture CANNOT be broken),"
So the the unbreakable law of JEHOVAH Has established that a certain class of his exalted representatives can poetically be referred to as elohim/theos its not in mockery.
Deuteronomy Ch.10:17ASV"7For JEHOVAH your God, he is God of gods, and Lord of lords, the great God, the mighty, and the terrible, who regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward"
Obviously to call JEHOVAH a God or a Lord of idols would be an insult but his exalted representatives have his full backing and thus are invincible. They are poetically called Gods and Lords in scripture on account of this divinely derived invincibility:
Brown driver and Briggs on elohim:a. rulers, judges, either as divine representatives at sacred places or as reflecting divine majesty and power: האלהים Exodus 21:6 (Onk ᵑ6, but τὸ κριτήριον τοῦ Θεοῦ ᵐ5) Exodus 22:7; Exodus 22:8; אלהים Exodus 22:8; Exodus 22:27 (ᵑ7 Ra AE Ew RVm; but gods, ᵐ5 Josephus Philo AV; God, Di RV; all Covt. code of E) compare 1 Samuel 2:25 see Dr.; Judges 5:8 (Ew, but gods ᵐ5; God ᵑ6 BarHebr.; יהוה ᵑ9 Be) Psalm 82:1; Psalm 82:6 (De Ew Pe; but angels Bl Hup) Psalm 138:1 (ᵑ6 ᵑ7 Rab Ki De; but angels ᵐ5 Calv; God, Ew; gods, Hup Pe Che).
b. divine ones, superhuman beings including God and angels Psalm 8:6 (De Che Br; but angels ᵐ5 ᵑ6 ᵑ7 Ew; God, RV and most moderns) Genesis 1:27 (if with Philo ᵑ7 Jerome De Che we interpret נעשה as God's consultation with angels; compare Job 38:7).
So this is an appeal to the authority of scripture. When these words were spoken the law covenant Was still in effect.
These are not self-styled Gods the scripture that proclaims them Gods cannot be broken as much as Mr.nevem wishes that it could.
Nincs:and otherwise the original psalm is mostly mocking about these judges, at all it does not break the fundamental and strict monotheism of Second Temple Judaism, which is also John's own (Deuteronomy 6:4, Isaiah 44:6).
Me:When Christ words were uttered the law was still in effect and it was that law that used elohim of angels and duly appointed Judges.
Psalms Ch.8:5NKJV"For You have made him a little lower than [d]the angels(elohim),
And You have crowned him with glory and honor".
Deuteronomy Ch.10:17ASV"7For JEHOVAH your God, he is God of gods, and Lord of lords, the great God, the mighty, and the terrible, who regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward"
* https://t.ly/CsF2b
* https://t.ly/esyel
Nowhere in the NT will you find a place that claims the exalted servants of God as θεοί in a actual, positive and affirmative sense. In all cases, it is consistently used in a condemning, mocking sense, for usurper, impostor "gods", like 2 Corinthians 4:4, 2 Thessalonians 2:4.
Totally irrelevant the Bible is a single work by a single author. Obviously the end of the law and the exalting of the the real Messiah of whom all the former were merely types and foreshadows would produce a reordering but the principle that JEHOVAH Had the authority to exalt any servant he wished to Godhood/Lordship is an eternal principle.
But like their Lord aspirants to this higher level of Godhood must endure trial and death as loyalists to him before inheriting same.
Revelation ch.3:21NIV"To the one who is victorious, I will give the right to sit with me on my throne, just as I was victorious and sat down with my Father on his throne."
Nincs:It is no coincidence that for example in Hebrews 2:7, the inspired author translates what the original psalmist wrote as "elohim" to "aggeloi" (angels). Why? Because, on a principle level, in the NT, calling actual "theoi" to created beings is kept away.
Me:more argument by assertion it could more plausibly asserted that the opposite was the aim in as much the Logos is being put under the authority these divine messengers
Paul was quoting from the septuagint it's translators were not motivated by this imaginary new Testament theology Mr. Nevem keeps babbling on about.
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