the bible,truth,God's kingdom,Jehovah God,New World,Jehovah's Witnesses,God's church,Christianity,apologetics,spirituality.
Wednesday, 31 May 2023
Yet even more primeval tech vs. Darwin
It's design all the way down.
Model Cell Visualized as a Compact Factory
In search of Adam and Eve?
Protein Evolution, the Waiting-Time Problem, and the Intriguing Possibility of Two First Parents
Tuesday, 30 May 2023
On artificial intelligence and genuine stupidity?
Breaking ChatGPT: Its Inability to Find Patterns in Numerical Sequences
The scriptures' antitrinitarian bias is unrelenting.
Hebrews ch.1:1-3KJV"(Grk. Ho Theos)God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image( Grk. kharakter)of his person(hypostasis)...."
The Father is here identified as ho theos THE God of the O T patriarchs and prophets according to trinitarians the Father is not a God and thus cannot be the God of anyone certainly not the God of the ancient patriarchs the God of the Bible. Jesus is said to be the Kharakter of JEHOVAH'S hypostasis rendered variously nature,substance,person here is part of thayers commentary:
that which has foundation, is firm; hence,
a. that which has actual existence; a substance, real being:
Thus the verse.3 is rendered in part this way in the NIV:"3The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being..."
Thus the Father being the God is a God in his own right which is a real problem for the creeds which in an effort to retain an appearance of monotheism insists that none of the constituents of the trinity is a God(though being fully God) in his own right. And also a being which in trinitarian theology ought only to be true of the entire trinity itself/himself? The son is spoken of as being the Kharakter of the God's(i.e the Father's) being. Here is thayers commentary in part:
the mark (figure or letters) stamped upon that instrument or wrought out on it; hence, universally, "a mark or figure burned in (Leviticus 13:28) or stamped on, an impression; the exact expression (the image) of any person or thing, marked likeness, precise reproduction in every respect" (cf. facsimile):
Obviously the imprint is not of the same substance/nature as the seal with which it is made. The impress is an artifact of the seal not the other way around thus we find not the slightest hint of this equality between Jesus and his God suggested by Trinitarians but rather the reverse clear indications of JEHOVAH'S transcendent supremacy.
The supremacy of the Father permeates the scriptures II
John ch.8:54NIV"If I glorify myself ,my glory means nothing. My Father,is the ONE who glorifies me."
Once more Jesus identifies his Father as the one God of Israel. For Jesus and his fellow Jews the Father and the God were identical,the father was not a member of a collective deity. And can we even conceive of the Father claiming that if he glorified himself his glory would be nothing.(btw why is the Holy Spirit not glorifying him)
John ch.14:6NIV"I am the way the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me."
Here again we see that the Father and the God are the same person. Unless we wish to claim that Jesus is merely mediator between man and a subsisting member of the God. Also if all members of this Godhead are truly co-equal why is it that only the Father requires a mediator and the Son and the spirit don't.
John ch.14:28"You heard me say,"I am going away and am coming back to you." If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father,for the Father (the God) is greater than I"
The Son's plain declaration that the person identified as the Father is greater than the person identified as the Son really ought to be the end of the matter,unfortunately we have had to witness the most cringe inducing mental gymnastics in connection with this text.
Hebrews ch.6:13NIV"When (the)God made his (third person singular)promise to Abraham since there was no one greater for him to swear by.."
JEHOVAH is immutable, so the apostle's declaration holds true at all times and in all places.
John ch.6:57NIV"Just as (in the same manner that) the living Father sent me and I live because of the Father (or the Father caused me to live),so (or in like manner) the one who feeds on me will live because of me."
If someone else caused one to live then one is most certainly not the one God of scripture. And the comparison with the way Christ will resurrect faithful followers should be a safeguard against attempts to needlessly mystify the verse. But who caused the Son to live The Father (i.e the God).
Luke ch.18:19NIV""why do you call me good" Jesus answered" no one is good_except (the)God alone.""
Here is another verse that really ought to be as plain as day as to its meaning ,but regarding which Christendom's theologians have elected for the most appalling mental contortions rather than the plain reading of the text. The Father is good in a way that distinguishes him from even the very best of his Sons. And this distinction is a transcendent one.
The kingdom of which God?
New Chinese Catholic leaders say they'll follow Communist Party principles
Time to pick a side Trinitarian/Modalist
Malachi ch.3:6ESV"“For I the LORD do not change; therefore you, O children of Jacob, are not consumed. "
So which is it ? Is it that JEHOVAH is subject to no change or is he capable of infinite change, which is the only way that he could become a mortal creature.
Romans ch.1:25ESV"because they exchanged the truth about God for a lie and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed forever! Amen."
So which is it are the categories of Creator and creature mutually exclusive or not?
Monday, 29 May 2023
Dave Farina: team atheism's LVP VII
Exposing Professor Dave’s Playground Tactics and Citation Bluffing Blitz
On the Logos
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word(Logos) was with God, and the Word(Logos) was God.
Re:the meaning of logos one commentary says in part:
(lĂłgos) is a common term (used 330 times in the NT) with regards to a person sharing a message (discourse, "communication-speech"). 3056 (lĂłgos) is a broad term meaning "reasoning expressed by words."]
Thus Logos implies communication between distinct minds(or at the very least a realistic attempt at such) and not mere speech or writing.
So if I opened a book in a language that I don't comprehend even though the text would be visible to me ,the 'Logos' of the author would remain invisible to me, at least until I was sufficiently conversant in that tongue.
Thus the idea that the Logos at John ch.1 could refer to JEHOVAH'S uncommunicated/unexpressed knowledge or wisdom seems unlikely. Logos would be JEHOVAH'S knowledge and/Wisdom expressed/Communicated to (a) distinct mind(s) at John ch.1 it is the living embodiment of that Communication.