Occam's razor and the supremacy of God the Father.

 Occam's razor:a scientific and philosophical rule that entities should not be multiplied unnecessarily which is interpreted as requiring that the simplest of competing theories be preferred to the more complex or that explanations of unknown phenomena be sought first in terms of known quantities." 

Thus (all otherwise being equal) in the course of any investigation the simpler/simplest of competing  explanations is to be preferred. 

This would be as true of biblical exegesis as any other type of investigation. So how do the typical contrivances put forward by trinitarian apologists as scriptural evidence for their doctrine stack up in this regard? Let's examine a few: 

John ch.1:3 KJV"All things were made by(Greek dia) him; and without him was not any thing made that was made." 

What could be plainer right? only almighty God could be the maker of all things. But is there a simpler explanation? One that even Trinitarians acknowledge when their cherished doctrine is not on the line?

John ch.1:17KJV"For the law was given by(Dia) Moses..." 

Jesus is even more direct,

John ch.7:19KJV"Did not Moses give you the law..." 

 Yet we are also told that JEHOVAH is the sole lawgiver.

James ch.4:12ESV"There is only one lawgiver and judge, ..."

Thus as I've repeatedly shown on this blog there is much more trinitarian style "proof" of Moses' Godhood than of Jesus' Godhood ,if Trinitarians were consistent with their interpretative logic that is, but here as in every other place that JEHOVAH is shown to be acting "dia"  a loyalist t(the lone exception being Jesus) Trinitarians choose to apply Occam's razor ,the Lord JEHOVAH is the ultimate legislator and his servant Moses is his instrument, his(i e Moses') status as legislator is derived from JEHOVAH the supreme legislator. 

1Corinthians 8:6 NIC"yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live." 

The simplest explanation therefore is that the Lord JEHOVAH is the ultimate source of the creation and the law that keeps it in order and the logos is the instrument he chose to employ in this regard. This explanation satisfies all the available evidence and spares us the needless complication of multiple coequal divine persons each of whom is both superlative and necessary. But the account says that he created ALL things? Some object, how could he himself be a creature did he create himself? The scriptures use the word 'all' with logical exceptions all( see what I did there) the time, indeed in our day to day conversation we routinely use the words 'all' and 'every' in this way. 

Genesis ch.3:20KJV"And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of ALL living." 

1Corinthians15:27KJV"For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith, ALL things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him." 

Here again Trinitarians acknowledge the simpler explanation, it is only when trawling the scriptures for "prooftexts"  for their illogical and unscriptural dogmas that this selective blindness kicks in, no one wonders aloud if eve was her own mother or if God the Father became subordinate to his Son. But simply put what does the bible really teach about the rank and nature of God the Father.  

John ch.10:29KJV" My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. "

Ephesians ch.4:6KJV"One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all."

God the Father is peerless, superlative i.e per the dictionary definition of those terms. 

Hebrews ch.6:13KJV"For when God made promise to Abraham, because he could swear by no greater, he sware by himself," 

JEHOVAH is immutable as per the dictionary definition, not that of Christendom's theologians' . Everything that is true of him is perpetually true and everything scripture declares to be false of him is perpetually false . As is the case throughout the N.T the expression ho Theos i.e the God, as long as it is not qualified in some way e.g part of a possessive noun, always refers to God the Father.  We can satisfy ourselves that this is the case in Hebrews by simply returning to ch.1 Hebrews ch.1:1,2"1God,who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, " Thus THE God who inspired the scriptures is the God and Father of Jesus Christ. 

this God is ,according to scripture, is without peer or even approximate. Thus the supremacy of God the Father remains the best exegesis of scripture on the topic of the identity of the most high God.