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Who is the "True
God"?
John 4:24 tells
us we must worship God in truth
(aletheia in the Greek text). There can be no doubt what "truth" means
here. It can be properly contrasted here with "falsity." If we are not
worshiping God correctly (in truth), then we are worshiping him
falsely. There are only two choices here. This is confirmed by
John 17:3 and 2 Thess. 1:8, 9 where we are told that it means eternal life to us
to know the true God and Jesus Christ, and, conversely, it
means eternal destruction to not know God and obey Jesus.
Obviously, if we "know" God and Christ falsely, we cannot
worship them in truth. We must know them accurately!
But what about the word "true"
[alethinos (contrasted with aletheia, 'truth')]
in NT Greek? If something is true, does that mean all
other things in that same category are necessarily false? Some
trinitarians insist that this is so when the term "the true
God" is used in Scripture. In other words they are insisting that if he is the
true God, anyone else called 'a god' would necessarily
be a false god! (And, therefore, Jesus cannot be called
"a god" in scripture as JWs have translated.)
Well, alethinos "is unquestionably used sometimes in the Gospel and
First Epistle [of John] to signify that a thing truly
corresponds to the idea of the name given to it" - p. 819, Vol. 4, A
Dictionary of the Bible, Hastings,
Hendrickson Publishers, 1988 printing.
And respected NT Greek expert W. E. Vine tells us
that alethinos
"denotes true in the sense of real,
ideal, genuine; it is used (a) of God,
John 7:28 ...; 17:3; I Thess.
1:9;...." - p. 1170, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament
Words, Nelson Publ., 1983 printing.
Therefore, if we should see, for example, someone
being called the 'true prophet,' that should mean that the
person so described is truly a prophet. In either case this
certainly does not have to mean that all other prophets must be
false! Even if it was said that this one was the
"only true Prophet," we would probably consider him the
only prophet in the highest sense of
the word, but that still would not make all other prophets of
God false prophets!
Or, since the Proverb quoted at 2 Peter 2:22 is
"the true (alethous) Proverb," does that
really mean that all other Proverbs must be
false?
And at
Heb. 8:2 we see Jesus as "a minister in the sanctuary [in heaven], and in the
true (alethinos - Young's; Vine)
tabernacle" - NASB. Here again, although the
heavenly "tabernacle" is the "true tabernacle," that
does not mean that the earthly tabernacle was a false
tabernacle. As W. E. Vine puts it when discussing Heb. 8:2,
"not that the wilderness Tabernacle was
false, but that it was a weak and earthly
copy of the Heavenly [cf. Heb. 9:24]." - p. 1171,
An Expository Dictionary of
Biblical Words, Thomas Nelson Publishers,
1984.
Therefore, the heavenly
tabernacle was the only true
Tabernacle. There could be other, earthly, tabernacles which
were still not false tabernacles. Or as Heb. 9:24 puts
it:
"For Christ did not enter a
holy place made with hands [the earthly tabernacle], a mere
copy of the true one, but into heaven
itself" - NASB.
No,
just because the heavenly tabernacle is the true one, does not
make holy tabernacles on earth false tabernacles. They were merely tabernacles
in a lesser sense of the word - "in the image of" the only
true Tabernacle (in heaven)!
“Christ proclaims
Himself [‘the bread the true’ - 'the true bread'] (John vi. 32), not suggesting
thereby that the bread which Moses gave was not also ‘bread of heaven’ (Ps. cv.
40), but only that it was such in a secondary inferior degree;
it was not food in the highest sense, inasmuch as it did not nourish up unto
eternal life those that ate it (John vi. 49). He is [‘the vine the true’ - 'the
true vine'] (John xv. I), not thereby denying that Israel also was God's vine
(Ps. lxxx. 8; Jer. 21), but affirming that none except Himself realized this
name, and all which this name implied, to the full (Hos. x. I;
Deut. xxxii. 32)” - p. 29, Trench’s Synonyms of the New Testament.
[Thanks to 'Reality.']
Perhaps the best illustration of this would be the
use of the term "Christ" (or 'Messiah' in Hebrew) ["christos,
christou, christw, and christon in the original
Greek]. As far as Christians are concerned there is only one
"true Christ," our Savior, Jesus! We know that the Bible
has also warned us about "false
christs."
However, less
well-known is the fact that God himself appointed King Saul (1 Sam. 24:7,
christos) and King David (2 Sam. 23:1, christon), among many
others, as His christ. "Christ" (or
"Messiah" in Hebrew) simply means "anointed" or "anointed one," and those who
properly bear that title are those who have been chosen by God for a special
assignment. This included the high priests, prophets, and righteous kings of
Israel. They all had the title "Christ" or "Christ of God" in the ancient Greek
of the Septuagint Bible. Why, even the foreign king, Cyrus, was called the
christ (christw) of God (Is. 45:1, Septuagint) because God chose him
for a special assignment!
So,
even though we would say that Jesus is the only true
Christ and that there have been many false Christs who have arisen, it
still would not be proper to insist that any person other than Jesus who is
called "christ" or "a christ" must be a false christ! We
would then be saying that King David, Moses, and innumerable others chosen by
God to do his will were false christs!
What we are saying, then, is that Jesus is the
only true Christ in that he is the only person who is God's anointed
in the highest sense of the
word! And all others called "christ" are either
false christs or faithful
servants of God in a lesser sense of the word (as
compared to Jesus himself)!
So, for God to say that he is the true
(alethinos) God does not demand that
all others called 'god' or 'gods' are
false gods as a few trinitarian apologists imply. The
inspired scriptures when speaking of faithful angels, prophets, God-appointed
judges, kings, and magistrates clearly calls them "gods" on occasion (see the BOWGOD and DEF studies). These are called "gods" in the
sense of faithful servants of God, representing the true God.[1]
Of course "God" [theos] (the "Most
High God" - Luke 8:28; Ps. 82:6; Luke 6:35[2] -
and the "God of gods" - Deut. 10:17;
Ps. 136:2) was distinguished from "a god" [theos] by the use of the
definite article ("the") in the original languages - see the DEF and THEOS studies. (Also remember that
capital letters were not used to distinguish things in the original manuscripts
of the Bible as they are in modern English Bibles: God,
Christ, etc.)
But let's examine the scriptural uses of the
"true God" more closely.
Strong's Exhaustive
Concordance of the Bible shows only 5 places
where this is used in the entire Bible: (1) 2 Chron. 15:3; (2) Jer. 10:10; (3) 1
Thess. 1:9; (4) 1 John 5:20; and (5) John 17:3. Jehovah's Witnesses teach that
Jehovah the God of the Bible is one person only (as his
singular, masculine, personal name, "Jehovah"
clearly shows): the Father in heaven. So does
the term "the only true God" ever refer to the Son or the Holy Spirit or a
'multiple-person' God? Or do the JW's teach the truth about the
knowledge of God that means our very eternal lives (Jn 17:3; 2 Thess. 1:8,
9)?
Here, then are
all the uses of "the true God" to be found in the entire
Holy Scriptures (according to Strong's; Young's; and the
New American Standard Concordances):
(1) ---2 Chron. 15:3, 4 says:
"Now for a long season Israel was without
the true (alethinos - Sept.)
God, and without a teaching priest, and without law: but when
in their distress they turned unto Jehovah, the God of
Israel, and sought him, he was found of them." - American
Standard Version (ASV).
(2) ---Jeremiah 10:10 says:
"But Jehovah is
the true God; he is
the living God, and an everlasting king..." - ASV. (This passage is not
in the Septuagint.)
These two scriptures (the only two
in the OT to use 'the true God' according to Young's; the New
American Standard; and Strong's concordances) clearly identify the
true God as Jehovah. And the only person to be
identified as Jehovah in the entire OT is the Father
alone! (Is. 63:16; 64:8, ASV; Deut. 32:6, ASV; Ps. 2:7 and
89:26, 27 {compare Heb. 1:5}.)
And, in fact, it is also clearly shown that the
Messiah is not Jehovah! (Psalm 110:1, ASV
{compare Acts 2:33-36 and Eph. 1:17, 20}; Micah 5:4, ASV; Psalm 2:1, 2,
ASV {compare Acts 4:25-27}; Psalm 2:7, ASV {compare Acts
13:33; Heb. 5:5}; Is. 53:6, 10, ASV {most Christian churches recognize
that all of Is. 53 refers to the Messiah}.)
But what about the New Testament? Is "the
true [real] God" ever clearly identified here (in
contradiction to the OT) as the Son? As the Holy Spirit? As a "multiple-person"
God?
(3)
---1 Thess. 1:9, 10 -
"They tell how you [the
Thessalonian congregation] turned to God from idols to serve the living and
true [alethinos] God, and to
wait for his Son from heaven, whom he raised from the
dead - Jesus..." - NIV.
Well, here again the true
God is clearly the Father alone as context
demands (and who has been identified as Jehovah alone above). And the Son,
Jesus, is clearly differentiated
from that 'true God"!
So what about the only two remaining references in
the NT: 1 John 5:20 and John 17:3?
The only hope for the trinitarian
argument that the "true God is Jesus" is found at 1 John
5:20.
(4)
---1 Jn 5:20 -
"We are in him that is true
[alethinos], even in his
Son, Jesus Christ. This
[outos] is the true [alethinos]
God, and eternal life." - KJV.
Some trinitarians actually insist
that the word "this" (outos) here refers to Jesus. In other words,
"[Jesus Christ] is the true God and eternal life." For example, Robert M. Bowman
in his Jehovah's Witnesses, Jesus Christ,
and the Gospel of John states that
at 1 Jn 5:20 Jesus is called 'the true God and eternal life'
"indisputably identifying Christ as the Almighty God of
the Old Testament." - p. 41, Baker Book House, 1991 printing. I understand why
some trinitarians are so desperate in their search for non-existent scriptural
"evidence" that they have to make it up, but this is incredibly
poor!
It is obvious that
grammatically the word "this" (outos)
could be referring to either the Father
or Jesus in this particular scripture (see the footnote
for 1 John 5:20 in the very trinitarian NIV Study
Bible). But the fact that the true God (or "the
true One") has just been identified as the Father of
Jesus (1 Jn 5:20, TEV and GNB; and the footnote in the NIV
Study Bible[3]) makes it
highly probable that "this is the true God" refers to the
Father, not Jesus. The highly trinitarian NT scholar Murray J. Harris sums up
his 13-page analysis of this scripture as follows:
"Although it is certainly possible that
outos refers back to Jesus Christ, several converging lines of evidence
point to 'the true one,' God the
Father, as the probable antecedent.
This position, outos = God [Father], is held by many commentators,
authors of general studies, and significantly, by those grammarians who express
an opinion on the matter."[4] -
p. 253, Jesus as God, Baker Book House,
1992.
Notice how this
trinitarian scholar actually admits that the probability
is that the Father (not Jesus) is being called the true God
here. He even tells us (and cites examples in his footnotes) that New Testament
grammarians and commentators (most of them trinitarian, of
course) agree!
So this single
"proof" that the "true God" is a title
for anyone other than the Father alone is not proof at all. The grammar alone
merely makes it a possibility. The immediate context makes it
highly improbable since (as in all other uses of the term) the true God (or the
true one) was just identified as the Father ("We are in the one
who is true as we are in his
Son, Jesus Christ. He is the
true God and this is eternal life." -
NJB; and "We know that the Son of God has come and has given us
understanding, so that we know the true God. We live in union with the true God
- in union with his Son Jesus Christ.
This is the true God, and this is eternal life." -
TEV.
"And we know that the Son of God has come, and he has
given us understanding so that we can know the true God. And now we live in
fellowship with the true God because we live in fellowship with
his Son, Jesus Christ. He is the only true God, and he
is eternal life." - New Living Translation).
So the immediate context alone makes it probable
that the true God is the
Father in this scripture also. As we have seen, if we
include the context of all the uses of the 'true God,' it is
certain that He is the Father alone (whose personal name is Jehovah - Ps. 83:18,
Ex. 3:15).
To clinch John's
intended meaning at 1 John 5:20, let's look at his only
other use of the term: John 17:1, 3, where, again (as in 1 Jn
5:20), he mentions Father, Son, and eternal life.
(5) ---At John 17:1, 3 Jesus prays to the
Father:
"Father, .... this is eternal life: that
they may know you, the only true
God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent." - New
International Version (NIV).
Here the Father alone is not only
very clearly identified as the only
true [alethinos] God, but Jesus
Christ is again pointedly and specifically excluded from that
identification ("AND Jesus Christ whom
you [the only true God] have sent")!
Notice how this popular
trinitarian Bible has rendered John 17:1, 3 - "Father,....This
is eternal life: to know thee who alone
art truly God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent." -
New English Bible (NEB).
So, the title "the true God" does
not have to mean that there are no others who may be called "gods" or "a god" in
a subordinate but righteous sense. It is, however, an exclusive
title for God, the Most High,
only true God, Jehovah. And clearly it
refers exclusively to the Father! No one else is the
God or the True God! (Compare Ps. 86:10; 2 Kings
19:19; Is. 37:16.)
Therefore,
the argument by certain trinitarian "guides" that the term
'true God' must mean that all others called 'gods' in the
Scriptures are false gods is clearly false itself. Those who
use it have not examined it with anything that could be called proper
scholarship. They are either terribly misinformed (the fault of their spiritual
"guides") or, in the case of the trinitarian authors, lecturers, and ministers
who are aware of methods of proper research, Bible language
grammar, etc., terribly dishonest ("deliberately-blind guides")! How does this
fit with the command that we must worship God in truth
(aletheia)- Jn 4:24? Or the warning that when the knowingly
blind (false religious leaders) lead the blind (the ones following those leaders
with blind faith) both will fall into the pit? Shouldn't we
ALL carefully and diligently examine all sides
of any essential, life-saving
Bible teaching?
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